Philippians 2:6 Intro
"Coequal (NOT 'Identical') Of Alaha"
who, as he was in the likeness [DEMUTHA] of Alaha (G-d), did not regard it sinful to be the coequal of Alaha (G-d); 7. yet disinherited himself and assumed the likeness [DEMUTHA] of a Mashamshana (Servant), and was in the likeness [DEMUTHA] of Nasha (Men) and was found in fashion as a man;
– Philippians 2:6-7 LJANT (Entries of [DEMUTHA] are put there by me).
It's not a secret that the the Greek texts are known as faulty in that region. Greek almost seems to say: “I really can’t speak for Godhead issues.” Aramaic clearly says it is “not blasphemous” to grasp this truth. There is no "Mystery" about it, as WW (Western World) Religions believe... just a secondary language transference error, or inability of the language to clarify that of the primary languages, though not all of the whole World used Greek Based Texts in the past 1,941+ years, or even knew of their existence of those, since those were done for the WW vernacular languages.
It can be more clearer on understanding the differences between the languages for the word "equal"; The Aramaic word is "chatuphya", meaning the same substance as, or, equal substance to. The ENGLISH of "equal" is DIFFERENT, and allows one to see it as a word in the English Lexicon, as "identical", and the Father and Son are not 100% "identical".
Yeshua was and remains YHWH’s exact visible form. Paul did not think that it was a non-Hebraic concept for Messiah to be YHWH, since that was a basic belief of many Jews of his day. It is not a mystery to be grasped at, as the faulty Greek text suggests, but a conclusion anyone with an open heart, who desires truth, can arrive at through much study and prayer, just like Paul did.
When this is noted, (NOT "IDENTICAL"), the Greek on that part there should be fine.
The Greek is just messed up and in that area (Phil 2:6-7). The Hebraic word here is DEMUTH[A], Cp. Hebrew Strong's H1823.
You can see some scriptures that use this word in the OT, starting with Genesis 1:26 and onward:
This is the Hebraic culture and mindset, not a foreign one like Greek/Latin, and others, of all of which were different grammar per language from each other. The Greek word morphē G3444 would be on a Thesaurus list at the very bottom (probably because it INCLUDES the word "form") and should have not been put into the Greek to be rendered properly since there are better choices and more equivalent to the Hebraic;
As you can see on the following page, what the real basic preferred Greek Equivalent words are:
Greek Equivalent Words:
2397 ‑ ἰδέα (id‑eh'‑ah); 3664 ‑ ὅμοιος (hom'‑oy‑os);
3667 ‑ ὁμοίωμα (hom‑oy'‑o‑mah);
3669 ‑ ὁμοίωσις (hom‑oy'‑o‑sis);
On that page, you can click on the Greek Strong numbers for those definitions. As to WHY the Greek is faulty in that area, or got that way, is not known, but has become more well known among Westerners in the Western World. If there was any tampering done to it, it would have occurred before 225 AD.
All too easy. 👍🏻
Here's the Grammatical analysis in a Morphological Table for the Aramaic:
Here's an article by Jewish Translator/Teacher Nazarene Andrew Gabriel-Yitzkhak bar Raphael:
Tap here to access the "Coequal Of Elohim" Sway Article.
The PDF Version of that article can be accessed tapping here.
Web Page Version on this Website.
NOTE: The Hebraic (Hebrew) word "Elohim", used in that article, is the equivalent for the Hebraic (Aramaic) "Alaha". KJV and a number of WW English Bibles (*not all of the them*) translates "Elohim" as "God" (Mostly) and a number of other terms.
#Philippians2_6 #Philippians2_7 #Coequal #LJAPNT #Aramaic #Greek
LJANT = Lapid Judaism Aramaic New Testament